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TSPSC Group-1 Preliminary Exam-2023 General Studies & Mental Ability Questions with Answers Part-3

TSPSC Group-1 Preliminary Exam-2023 General Studies & Mental Ability Questions with Answers Part-3

TSPSC Group-1 Preliminary Exam-2023 General Studies & Mental Ability Questions with Answers Part-3

81. Which among the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A. Somnath Temple                              Solankis
B. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple             Chauhans
C. Aihole Temple                                  Badami Chalukyas
D. Konark Temple                                 Chandelas
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and D only

Answer: 3

82. Consider the following statements about Warangal fort and its inner constructions :
A. Shitabkhan constructed ‘Kush Mahal’ in the fort of Warangal, which is a replica of ‘Hindola Mahal’ at Mandu.
B. Pratapa Charitra, Siddeshwara Charitra and Kridabhiramam contain interesting descriptions on the fort of Warangal.
C. According to Pratapa Charitra, Warangal fort contains 88 bastions or kottalamulu.
D. According to Sivayoga Saramu the foundation of Warangal fort was laid by Ganapatideva.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and D only

Answer: 1

83. “Iltutmish got erected two marble statues of lions and bells hanged to their necks. Anybody could ring these bells and seek justice from the Sultan.” Who among the following writers recorded this statement ?
(1) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(2) Ibn Batuta
(3) Isami
(4) Malik Qutb-ud-din

Answer: 2

84. Either the throne or the coffin (Ya takht, Ya takhta) was a proverb of which country ?
(1) Hindustan

(2) Turkistan

(3) Persia

(4) Arabia

Answer: 3

85. Match the following :
Painters                                        Mughal Rulers
A. Mir Sayyid Ali                          I. Humayun
B. Daswant                                 II. Akbar
C. Ustad Mansur                          III. Jahangir
D. Mir Hashim                             IV. Shahjahan
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(3) A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV
(4) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II

Answer: 1

86. According to Abul Fazal, Akbar started one thousand karkhanas for producing woollen clothes. At which among the following places did he establish them ?
(1) Surat

(2) Dacca

(3) Lahore

(4) Amritsar

Answer: 3

87. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Arya Samaj was started in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
B. Vivekananda condemned rituals and superstitions.
C. The theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of Hinduism.
D. In 1920s, Akali Movement was started to purify Sikh Gurudwaras in Punjab.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

Answer: 4

88. “This diamond of India, this jewel of Maharashtra, this prince of workers ……. . Look at him and try to emulate him.” Who made this remark about Gopal Krishna Gokhale ?
(1) B.R. Nanda
(2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) G.V. Joshi

Answer: 2

89. South India was the custodian of the pure classical techniques of dance. In Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, the devadasis kept the dance tradition alive by performing solo and dance-dramas. What are dance-dramas called in South India ?
(1) Chhau nritya

(2) Kuravanjis

(3) Angika Abhinaya

(4) Aalambana

Answer: 2

90. Consider the following statements regarding Sikhs :
A. A well of eighty-four steps built by Guru Amar Das in Goindwal village has become the first pilgrimage centre for the Sikhs.
B. Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) was constructed by Guru Arjan Dev at Amritsar in the year 1589.
C. A high platform in front of Harmandir Sahib known as the Akal Takht was built by Guru Hargobind.
D. Guru Gobind Singh introduced ‘Khalsa’ and established himself in Anandpur, in the Siwalik range, in 1699.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

Answer: 4

91. Match the following Articles of the Constitution with their respective provisions :
Article                                                             Provision
A. Article-19                        I. Freedom to manage religious affairs subject to public order
B. Article-21                        II. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
C. Article-23                        III. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech
D. Article-26                        IV. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
V. Protection of life and personal liberty
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A-III; B-V; C-II; D-I
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
(3) A-V; B-IV; C-II; D-III
(4) A-V; B-II; C-I; D-III

Answer: 1

92. When there is a challenge to the legality of detention
(1) the writ of certiorari is filed
(2) the writ of habeas corpus is filed
(3) the writ of mandamus is filed
(4) the writ of quo warranto is filed

Answer: 2

93. Consider the following statements :
A. The Constitution commands justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as supreme values to usher in the egalitarian social, economic and political democracy.
B. To establish an egalitarian social order, the trinity, the preamble, the fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy delineate the path for socio-economic justice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: 3

94. Which of the following is not an appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India ?
(1) Cases involving disputes between two or more States
(2) Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution
(3) Civil cases, irrespective of any constitutional question
(4) Criminal cases, irrespective of any constitutional question

Answer: 1

95. Who among the following were the members of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
A. Amarjit Kaur
B. Begum Aizaz Rasul
C. Hansa Jivraj Mehta
D. Kamala Mukherjee
E. Renuka Ray
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A, B, D and E only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) B, C, D and E only

Answer: 3

96. Consider the following in relation to ‘Operation Blue Star’ :
A. It was the biggest internal security mission undertaken by the Indian Army.
B. It was aimed at removing Sikh militants who were accumulating weapons in the Harmandir Sahib Complex.
C. Operation Blue Star was carried out between 1st and 8th July, 1985 in Amritsar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and C only
(4) B only

Answer: 1

97. Consider the following in relation to the Legislative Council :
A. The Council is a permanent house and one-third of the members retire in two years.
B. Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the Legislative Council.
C. One-twelfth shall be elected by electorates consisting of graduates of three years standing, residing in the State.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) B and C only

Answer: 1

98. Who among the following shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of their office ?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Law Minister
D. Governor of a State
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A, B and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B and D only

Answer: 3

99. Consider the following :
A. The prevention of concentration of wealth to the common determinant
B. The protection of childhood and youth against exploitation
C. Adequate means of livelihood to all citizens
D. A proper distribution of the material resources of the community for common good
The above aspects are part of the :
(1) Fundamental Rights of the Constitution
(2) Directive Principles of the Constitution
(3) State List of the Constitution
(4) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution

Answer: 2

100. Consider the following statements :
A. Article 356 in the Constitution of India deals with the proclamation of financial emergency.
B. During the proclamation of financial emergency, the President can suspend provision relating to the division of the taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: 2

101. The TSR Subramanian Committee (2014) is associated with which of the following ?
(1) Indian efforts to counter internal and external terrorism
(2) Review the processes, laws and acts of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(3) Dissolution of the Muslim Marriage Act
(4) Review the process, laws and acts of the Ministry of Human Resource Development

Answer: 2

102. Consider the following statements :
A. To be able to discharge the constitutional obligations fairly and impartially, the Governor should not be burdened with positions and powers which are not envisaged by the Constitution.
B. Making the Governor the Chancellor of the Universities and thereby conferring powers on him/her which may have had some relevance historically has ceased to be so with the change of times and circumstances.
The above are the part of recommendations of the following :
(1) Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission
(2) Kothari Commission
(3) New Education Policy – 2020
(4) National Knowledge Commission

Answer: 1

103. Which of the following is not matched correctly in relation to the year of enacting ?
(1) 2005 : The Right to Information Act
(2) 2005 : The MGNREG Act
(3) 2009 : The RTE Act
(4) 2012 : The National Food Security Act

Answer: 2

104. What are the objectives of the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) ?
A. Develop centralised depository of data informatics
B. Enable data-driven policy making
C. Institutionalising rigorous tracking of performance metrics
D. Strengthening the whole ecosystem to mainstream rigorous outcome monitoring and evaluation
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) B, C and D only

Answer: 4

105. Which of the following recommended for the establishment of the Public Record Offices as an independent authority by both, the Government of India and State Governments ?
(1) Supreme Court judgement on Girish Ramchandra Deshpande vs. Central Information Commission
(2) The NITI Aayog Task Force on Good Governance
(3) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) The Parliamentary Joint Working Group on Right to Information

Answer: 3

106. Consider the following in relation to the MGNREGA :
A. Wage seekers are the primary stakeholders of the MGNREGA.
B. The Field Officer recommends the works to be taken up under MGNREGA.
C. Gram Sabha conducts social audit on implementation of the scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) A, B and C
(4) C only

Answer: 2

107. The services of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) under Ayushman Bharat include :
A. Care in pregnancy and childbirth
B. Management of Communicable Diseases
C. Basic Oral Health Care
D. Screening and basic management of mental health ailments
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A and B only
(3) A only
(4) B and C only

Answer: 1

108. Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) is mainly implemented by the
(1) Ministry of Shipping, Government of India
(2) Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India
(3) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(4) Ministry of Roads and Buildings, Government of India

Answer: 2

109. In relation to the organisational framework of the NITI Aayog, which of the following is not matched correctly ?
(1) Chairperson : Prime Minister of India
(2) Part-time Members : Maximum Two
(3) Ex-officio Members : Maximum Four
(4) Chief Executive Officer : Appointed by the President for a three-year tenure

Answer: 4

110. Consider the following statements in relation to the Foreign Trade Policy of the Government of India :
A. Foreign Trade Policy is a set of guidelines and instructions established by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) in matters related to the import and export of goods in India.
B. The Government of India, Ministry of Finance announces Export Import Policy every five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: 1

111. Which of the following statements related to Rythu Bandhu Scheme of Telangana State is/are correct ?
A. In 2020 – 21 Telangana budget, 65·4% of agricultural budget was earmarked for Rythu Bandhu Scheme.
B. In 2020 – 21 Telangana budget, 7·7% of total budget was earmarked for Rythu Bandhu Scheme.
C. Telangana government launched Rythu Bandhu Scheme in 2016.
D. In the year 2020, 80% of Rythu Bandhu Scheme beneficiaries were marginal and small farmers.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) D only
(2) B only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A and C only

Answer: 2

112. Match the following in relation to the broad pillars of the Telangana Innovation Policy – 2016 :
Name of Pillar                                                     Pillar Number
A. Human Capital                                                  I. One
B. Physical Infrastructure
and Programme
Management Capabilities                                       II.Three
C. Funding Models and Capital                               III.Two
D. Engagement with Industry                                IV. Four
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
(2) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(3) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(4) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I

Answer: 2

113. Consider the following pairs in relation to incentives offered under Telangana Textiles and Apparel Policy 2017 – 22 :
Incentive Type                              Incentive
A. Capital subsidy                   Up to < 40 crore
B. Interest subsidy                  6% per annum for 8 years
C. Power subsidy                     Up to < 1·5 per unit
D. SGST reimbursement          100% for 7 years
Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched ?
(1) A and C only
(2) B and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

Answer: 3

114. Arrange the following in ascending order based on the sectorwise TS-iPASS investment (in < crores) in 2020 – 21 :
A. Solar and other renewable energy
B. Thermal Power Plants
C. Fertilizers
D. Pharmaceuticals and Chemicals
Choose the correct order :
(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, A, D, C
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, D, B, A

Answer: D

115. Consider the following statements of Kakatiya period :
A. The usual way of representing the people in general during the Kakatiya period is by mentioning them as ‘Ashtadasapraja’.
B. People of this period led a corporate life.
C. During Kakatiya period individual castes organized their corporate associations called ‘Samayachara’ to look after their well-being.
D. The Brahmin villages were generally formed into an association called ‘Asamkhyatulu’.
Which of the above statements are not correct ?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

Answer: 3

116. Which among the following was considered as the main occupation of Dependent Castes (Aasrita Kulalu) in Telangana ?
(1) Knitting mats and baskets
(2) Hunting
(3) Begging
(4) Podu Cultivation

Answer: 3

117. What is meant by ‘Panjatan-e-Pak’ ?
(1) Five important duties to be performed by every Muslim.
(2) Five important duties of Muslims carried in the emblem i.e., ‘Alam’ created in the Deccan between 15th and 16th centuries.
(3) According to the Shia faith of Islam it means the five pure persons. i.e., Mohammad, Ali, Fathima, Hasan and Hussain. These names were incorporated in Alam.
(4) Five important festivals celebrated by the Muslims of Deccan.

Answer: 3

118. ‘Shivayogasaram’ gives details about the family history of which Kakatiya subordinates ?
(1) Induluri Chiefs
(2) Cheraku Chiefs
(3) Kota Chiefs
(4) Malyala Chiefs

Answer: 1

119. During Kakatiya period, three Acharyas were popularly known as ‘Pandita-traya’. Identify them.
(1) Mallikarjuna Pandita, Palkuriki Somanatha and Visvesvara Pandita
(2) Sripati Pandita, Mallikarjuna Pandita and Manchana Pandita
(3) Visvesvara Pandita, Mallikarjuna Pandita and Manchana Pandita
(4) Sripati Pandita, Palkuriki Somanatha and Manchana Pandita

Answer: 2

120. Consider the following pairs :
Churches                                         Location in Hyderabad
A. St. John’s Church                             Bolarum
B. Holy Trinity Church                           Tirumalagiri
C. St. Mary’s Church                             Secunderabad
D. St. George’s Church                          Abids
Choose the correct pair :
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

Answer: 3

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